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Exercise 26

Avg difficulty 3.0

Does Theorem 1.9 need that ⟨β⃗1,…,β⃗n⟩\langle\vec{\beta}_{1},\ldots,\vec{\beta}_{n}\rangle is a basis? That is, can we still get a well-defined and unique homomorphism if we drop either the condition that the set of β⃗\vec{\beta}’s be linearly independent, or the condition that it span the domain?

Hefferon, Linear Algebra, Maps Between Spaces, Definition, Exercise 26

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Adapted from Linear Algebra © 2016 Jim Hefferon. Licensed under CC BY-SA 3.0 US. Source: Linear Algebra. Imported at revision df2262e.