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Exercise 15

Avg difficulty 2.5

In Table in Activity, we noted that for x>0x \gt 0, an antiderivative of f(x)=1xf(x) = \frac{1}{x} is F(x)=ln⁡(x)F(x) = \ln(x). Here we observe that a key difference between f(x)f(x) and F(x)F(x) is that ff is defined for all x≠0x \ne 0, while FF is only defined for x>0x \gt 0, and see how we can actually define an antiderivative of ff for all values of xx.

  1. Suppose that x<0x \lt 0, and let G(x)=ln⁡(−x)G(x) = \ln(-x). Compute G′(x)G'(x).

  2. Explain why GG is an antiderivative of ff for x<0x \lt 0.

  3. Let H(x)=ln⁡(∣x∣)H(x) = \ln(|x|), and recall that ∣x∣={−x, if x<0x, if x≥0\begin{aligned} |x| = \begin{cases} -x, & \ \text{if} \ x \lt 0 \\ x, & \ \text{if} \ x \ge 0 \end{cases} \end{aligned}. Explain why H(x)=G(x)H(x) = G(x) for x<0x \lt 0 and H(x)=F(x)H(x) = F(x) for x>0x \gt 0.

  4. Now discuss why we say that an antiderivative of 1x\frac{1}{x} is ln⁡(∣x∣)\ln(|x|) for all x≠0x \ne 0.

Boelkins, Active Calculus, §4.4 The Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, Exercise 15

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Adapted from Active Calculus © 2012–2025 Matthew Boelkins. Licensed under CC BY-SA 4.0. Source: Active Calculus. Imported at revision dc86ba3.